Trauma Module-Lower Extremity 1. A 20 year old male sustains a closed tibial shaft fracture with an intact fibula. Which of the following statements is false? It is associated with an increased risk posttraumatic degeneration of the ipsilateral ankle. It is associated with an increased incidence of valgus malunion. It is associated with an increased risk of nonunion It is associated with an increased incidence of delayed union Tension forces predominate in the lateral tibial cortex (Question 1 of 10)2. Regarding plate fixation for pubic symphysis diastasis the following are true except Placement of a Foley catheter is needed to decompress the bladder A lower midline incision is preferred to help identify visceral injuries if necessary Indicated if there is more than 2.5 cm displacement symphysis is an amphiarthrodial joint, consisting of a fibrocartilaginous disc, and stabilized by the superior and inferior arcuate ligaments Double plating is ideally done in 90-90 degree fashion (Question 2 of 10)3. The most important ligament to be reconstructed in an isolated knee dislocation in the absence of a fracture is? PCL MCL ACL LCL PLC(Question 3 of 10)4. Femur fractures that are most often associated with a pathologic process: Intertrochanteric fractures Femoral neck fractures Subtrochanteric fractures Supracondylar fractures Shaft fractures(Question 4 of 10)5. In a pelvic fracture, selective arterial embolisation can be considered to reduce ongoing haemorrhage if Stable fracture pattern liver, kidney, spleen or other visceral lacerations Restoration of haemodynamic stability by initial fluid resuscitation A CT Scan finding of a large hematoma in the space of Retzius Ultrasound finding of a retroperitoneal hematoma (Question 5 of 10)6. The following are true of acetabular fracture surgery except: The development of secondary arthritis has a correlation with degree of articular reduction An arteriogram is required to check the patency of superior gluteal artery prior to undertaking an extended iliofemoral approach Infratectal and Juxtatectal fractures are best managed by Kocher Langenback approach The incidence of heterotopic ossification is highest for Ilioinguinal approach The Ilioinguinal approach is ideal for anterior column fracture fixation (Question 6 of 10)7. True about Sacral fractures are all except? L5 nerve root is most commonly injured in Zone 1 injuries The Denis classification has 3 zones Transformaminal fractures with vertical instability and comminution should be treated with iliosacral screws only U shaped fractures involved spinopelvic dissociation and maybe associated with cauda equina syndrome Zone 3 injuries have highest risk of neurological involvement(Question 7 of 10)8. Sarmiento’s functional cast bracing is contraindicated in which of the following? Significant axial instability Significant angular instability. Articular Involvement Presence of an open fracture Rotational instability (Question 8 of 10)9. Which of the following injuries is most commonly associated with knee dislocation fracture of the tibial plateau common peroneal nerve injury popliteal artery rupture fracture of the distal femur Segond fracture(Question 9 of 10)10. The best solution for irrigation during debridement of an open tibial fracture is Povidone Iodine Bacitracin Castile Soap Distilled water Normal Saline(Question 10 of 10) Loading ... Get explanatory answers from our book, <br /> Post Views: 7,726 Related Posts Lower Extremity Diaphyseal MalunionCourtesy: Susan Harding, MD, Associate Professor of Orthopaedic Surgery, Drexel University Saqib Rehman, Director of… Exam Module- Upper Limb TraumaGet explanatory answers from our book, Paediatric Lower Extremity #Trauma ReviewCourtesy: Prof Nabil Ebraheim, University of Toledo, Ohio, USA
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