Trauma Module-Lower Extremity 1. A 20 year old male sustains a closed tibial shaft fracture with an intact fibula. Which of the following statements is false? It is associated with an increased incidence of valgus malunion. It is associated with an increased risk posttraumatic degeneration of the ipsilateral ankle. It is associated with an increased incidence of delayed union It is associated with an increased risk of nonunion Tension forces predominate in the lateral tibial cortex (Question 1 of 10)2. The following are true of acetabular fracture surgery except: An arteriogram is required to check the patency of superior gluteal artery prior to undertaking an extended iliofemoral approach The Ilioinguinal approach is ideal for anterior column fracture fixation Infratectal and Juxtatectal fractures are best managed by Kocher Langenback approach The development of secondary arthritis has a correlation with degree of articular reduction The incidence of heterotopic ossification is highest for Ilioinguinal approach(Question 2 of 10)3. The best solution for irrigation during debridement of an open tibial fracture is Povidone Iodine Bacitracin Castile Soap Distilled water Normal Saline(Question 3 of 10)4. True about Sacral fractures are all except? U shaped fractures involved spinopelvic dissociation and maybe associated with cauda equina syndrome The Denis classification has 3 zones Zone 3 injuries have highest risk of neurological involvement Transformaminal fractures with vertical instability and comminution should be treated with iliosacral screws only L5 nerve root is most commonly injured in Zone 1 injuries (Question 4 of 10)5. In a pelvic fracture, selective arterial embolisation can be considered to reduce ongoing haemorrhage if Ultrasound finding of a retroperitoneal hematoma A CT Scan finding of a large hematoma in the space of Retzius Restoration of haemodynamic stability by initial fluid resuscitation Stable fracture pattern liver, kidney, spleen or other visceral lacerations (Question 5 of 10)6. Which of the following injuries is most commonly associated with knee dislocation common peroneal nerve injury fracture of the tibial plateau popliteal artery rupture Segond fracture fracture of the distal femur (Question 6 of 10)7. Sarmiento’s functional cast bracing is contraindicated in which of the following? Articular Involvement Significant axial instability Rotational instability Significant angular instability. Presence of an open fracture (Question 7 of 10)8. The most important ligament to be reconstructed in an isolated knee dislocation in the absence of a fracture is? LCL ACL PLC PCL MCL(Question 8 of 10)9. Femur fractures that are most often associated with a pathologic process: Shaft fractures Femoral neck fractures Supracondylar fractures Intertrochanteric fractures Subtrochanteric fractures (Question 9 of 10)10. Regarding plate fixation for pubic symphysis diastasis the following are true except Indicated if there is more than 2.5 cm displacement A lower midline incision is preferred to help identify visceral injuries if necessary symphysis is an amphiarthrodial joint, consisting of a fibrocartilaginous disc, and stabilized by the superior and inferior arcuate ligaments Double plating is ideally done in 90-90 degree fashion Placement of a Foley catheter is needed to decompress the bladder (Question 10 of 10) Loading ... Get explanatory answers from our book, Post Views: 7,753 Related Posts Lower Extremity Diaphyseal MalunionCourtesy: Susan Harding, MD, Associate Professor of Orthopaedic Surgery, Drexel University Saqib Rehman, Director of… Exam Module- Upper Limb TraumaGet explanatory answers from our book, Paediatric Lower Extremity #Trauma ReviewCourtesy: Prof Nabil Ebraheim, University of Toledo, Ohio, USA
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