Trauma Module-Lower Extremity 1. Femur fractures that are most often associated with a pathologic process: Intertrochanteric fractures Supracondylar fractures Femoral neck fractures Shaft fractures Subtrochanteric fractures (Question 1 of 10)2. Which of the following injuries is most commonly associated with knee dislocation fracture of the distal femur fracture of the tibial plateau Segond fracture common peroneal nerve injury popliteal artery rupture (Question 2 of 10)3. Regarding plate fixation for pubic symphysis diastasis the following are true except symphysis is an amphiarthrodial joint, consisting of a fibrocartilaginous disc, and stabilized by the superior and inferior arcuate ligaments Indicated if there is more than 2.5 cm displacement Placement of a Foley catheter is needed to decompress the bladder Double plating is ideally done in 90-90 degree fashion A lower midline incision is preferred to help identify visceral injuries if necessary (Question 3 of 10)4. The following are true of acetabular fracture surgery except: The Ilioinguinal approach is ideal for anterior column fracture fixation The incidence of heterotopic ossification is highest for Ilioinguinal approach Infratectal and Juxtatectal fractures are best managed by Kocher Langenback approach The development of secondary arthritis has a correlation with degree of articular reduction An arteriogram is required to check the patency of superior gluteal artery prior to undertaking an extended iliofemoral approach (Question 4 of 10)5. The best solution for irrigation during debridement of an open tibial fracture is Povidone Iodine Distilled water Bacitracin Castile Soap Normal Saline(Question 5 of 10)6. The most important ligament to be reconstructed in an isolated knee dislocation in the absence of a fracture is? ACL MCL PLC LCL PCL(Question 6 of 10)7. True about Sacral fractures are all except? L5 nerve root is most commonly injured in Zone 1 injuries U shaped fractures involved spinopelvic dissociation and maybe associated with cauda equina syndrome Zone 3 injuries have highest risk of neurological involvement Transformaminal fractures with vertical instability and comminution should be treated with iliosacral screws only The Denis classification has 3 zones (Question 7 of 10)8. A 20 year old male sustains a closed tibial shaft fracture with an intact fibula. Which of the following statements is false? It is associated with an increased incidence of valgus malunion. It is associated with an increased risk posttraumatic degeneration of the ipsilateral ankle. Tension forces predominate in the lateral tibial cortex It is associated with an increased risk of nonunion It is associated with an increased incidence of delayed union (Question 8 of 10)9. Sarmiento’s functional cast bracing is contraindicated in which of the following? Significant axial instability Significant angular instability. Rotational instability Articular Involvement Presence of an open fracture (Question 9 of 10)10. In a pelvic fracture, selective arterial embolisation can be considered to reduce ongoing haemorrhage if liver, kidney, spleen or other visceral lacerations Restoration of haemodynamic stability by initial fluid resuscitation Stable fracture pattern A CT Scan finding of a large hematoma in the space of Retzius Ultrasound finding of a retroperitoneal hematoma (Question 10 of 10) Loading ... Get explanatory answers from our book, Post Views: 7,776 Related Posts Lower Extremity Diaphyseal MalunionCourtesy: Susan Harding, MD, Associate Professor of Orthopaedic Surgery, Drexel University Saqib Rehman, Director of… Exam Module- Upper Limb TraumaGet explanatory answers from our book, Paediatric Lower Extremity #Trauma ReviewCourtesy: Prof Nabil Ebraheim, University of Toledo, Ohio, USA
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